Please Discuss the Historical Division Over Instrumental Music

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Please discuss the division between the Christian Church and the churches of Christ over instrumental music.

Instrumental music was not introduced into worship until pope Vitalian in A.D. 660.  Even after this, the instrument was not generally used. Thomas Aquinas wrote in 1250, “Our church does not use musical instruments as harps and psalteries to praise God withal that she may not seem to Judaize.” The term “a cappella” means “sung as in the church or chapel.” A cappella music is singing done without accompaniment by instrumental music.

Charles Spurgeon (1834-1892), considered one of the greatest Baptist preachers, did not tolerate instrument music in his congregation of over 10,000 people. In commenting upon Psalm 42:4, he said, “What a degradation to supplant the intelligent song of the whole congregation by the theatrical prettiness of a quartet, the refined niceties of a choir, or the blowing off of wind from inanimate bellows and pipes! We might as well pray by machinery as praise by it.”

It was about this same time period (1850-1900) that members of the church were beginning to desire the use of instruments in worship. Those who wanted instruments formed and established the Christian Churches and Disciples of Christ. Those who chose to remain without the instruments continued as the churches of Christ. In 1904, the United States census office queried the then editor of the Gospel Advocate (a popular periodical among churches of Christ), David Lipscomb, about the division. He reported on the number of churches with and without the instrument. This formalized the division, and from then onward the churches of Christ have not used it whereas the Christian Church and Disciples of Christ have.

So, it was not until very recently in church history that instrumental music became popular. This is at least some of the historical evidence that we find outside of the Bible regarding the use and non-use of instrumental music, but what is the standard? Is it not the first century church? They did not use instrumental music at all. Many passages in the New Testament discuss music in the early church, but they all refer to singing. These are: Matt.26:30; Mark 14:26; Acts 16:25; 1 Cor.14:6; 1 Cor.14:15; Eph.5:19; Col.3:16; Heb.2:12; James 5:13. Not once does the New Testament refer to playing an instrument such as a harp, pipe, drum or any other stringed instrument in the worship of the church.

Why is this so significant?  This is significant because according to Romans 10:17, faith comes by hearing the word of God.  If there is no word of God on the subject, then one’s actions cannot be by faith.  If one’s actions are without faith, then one cannot be pleasing to God for without faith it is impossible to be pleasing to God (Hebrews 11:6).  There is no word from God regarding instrumental music.  Therefore, we cannot, by faith, worship God with instrumental music.  We cannot therefore be pleasing to God and worship with instrumental music.